I agree wholeheartedly with +SERB1389's cry of ACCIDENT for the Holy Synod, and I believe that we should decide together on the following issues (point-by-point, to make it easier):
1. Do we define subliminal drinking as the act of receiving alchohol into the system without cognitive recognition of the fact by the recipient, thus bypassing voluntary control of the drinking act, the sensations of taste, but instead resulting only in the after-effects of the drinking act, i.e. the effects of alchohol on the body?
2. Do we uphold the "drinking act" - the physical raising of the cup, acknowledgement of one's company, the occasional toast, and the physical bringing of the cup to mouth to imbibe, with the effects of tasting the beer and increasing camaraderie - as being integral to the drinking experience?
3. If we agree upon two, then do we anathematize all acts which bypass the "drinking act" as being against the very fiber of our standard of morality?