Raylight, you are asking the OT to do something that it was not intended to do. Like the Church, the Jews did not look at the OT as an individual inerrant document. It was always interpreted through tradition. If you would like, you can go through the ancient Jewish midrashes and some of them do condemn lesbianism along with homosexuality in general. You will find that they did not view lesbianism as wrong as male homosexuality because it was their view that women could not engage in actual intercourse with one another as men can, but it was still considered a rebellion against God.
I'm not asking what the Jewish Tradition said, I'm asking what the Bible said. Tradition is not inspired, the Bible is. There is no verse condemns lesbian sex in the OT, that is now very clear to me. So, the Old Testament never condemned Homosexuality like some Christians claim, but it condemned male-male sex in two cases, when one of them is married to a woman and go have sex with a man, and the second case is male gang-rape like in Sodom.
I understand that some people will never ever ever accept that, they just can't accept it. But the fact is fact, even if the whole world didn't accept it.
Why would lesbianism be alright as opposed to "male-male sex"?
Hmm. A book written by primitive, somewhat misogynistic men (no not me). Well, perhaps it has to do with the fact that in the minds of such men, male-male sex is seen as gross and disturbing whereas female-female sex is seen as attractive and romanticized. It could also do with the fact that the men were afraid of being too hard on the women, lest the women rebel and the men lose some of their rights (like having multiple wives). And it could also be simply that they couldn't fathom lesbian sex since I imagine they probably didn't care much about female anatomy and sexuality apart from their relation to men.
It certainly is interesting that the OT in many cases specifically addresses laws to both men and women, whereas some of the laws only address one group or the other. That being said, I have a Christianly-incorrect thought: maybe, as the Jews have been telling us all along, Leviticus only applied to the Levite Priesthood and thus only men, and that homosexuality was either allowed for the rest of the population or condemned via tradition or culture.