The point of the literal translation is to use it in a study of Christology.
But, it's fine if I cannot have a literal translation. I found a 'better' verse.
9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily, 10 and you have been filled in him, who is the head of all rule and authority.
9 ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ κατοικεῖ πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος σωματικῶς, 10 καὶ ἐστὲ ἐν αὐτῷ πεπληρωμένοι, ὅς ἐστιν ἡ κεφαλὴ πάσης ἀρχῆς καὶ ἐξουσίας,
Sorry, I should not have taken so long to edit the message...
Despite the words being italicized, some form of Greek suggesting the Father might have been in the original manuscripts, because St. John Chrysostom mentions this verse containing reference of the Father. What makes you say that the concept of the Father was not "in the Greek"?
Besides the obvious, I suppose.
I say if the Church Fathers were reading it as containing the concept of the Father, than it had to be in there at some point.