Can someone enlighten me as to the relationship between Canon 3 of Constantinople I and Canon 28 of Chalcedon?
Why is there a debate over Canon 28 and not Canon 3, and why would Canon 28 be necessary if Constantinople I already gave Constantinople the honor after Rome. Did Rome contest Canon 3?
Canon 3 merely made Constantinople autocephalous, which, at the time, meant being independent of the Metropolitan of the province (in this case, Herekleia, whose Metropolitan to this day enthrones the new Archbishop of Constantinople at his election). Canon 28 made it into a patriarchate, placing Metropolitans (of Thrace, Asia and Pontus) under the autocephalous bishop.
The debate is because the phanar has lately taken canon 28 to mean placing the whole Church under the autocephalous bishop, much like Old Rome claims for canon 6 of Nicea I