So I was just discussing with a parishioner the reasons why the calculation for Pascha has changed from Nicea I to the 6th century changes with the 19 cycle lunar model.
As we discussed things, he asked me, how come we celebrate Christ's passion one week after Passover (according to the Gospel of John), but the events are taken (many of them) from the other Gospels, which would have occurred one week before.
Is it just as simple as "we took the whole story & placed it into the timeline of John"??
hope i'm making sense here