But lets use The Very Orthodox Books themselves(Early Church Fathers) to prove this,
"ἡ δὲ εὐαγγέλιος φωνὴ ἐπιτατικώτερον διδάσκει περὶ ἁγνείας λέγουσα· “Πᾶς ὁ ἰδὼν γυναῖκα ἀλλοτρίαν πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν ἤδη ἐμοίχευσεν αὐτὴν ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ. καὶ ὁ γαμῶν”- Theophilus to Autolycus, B III, Ch 3
Key word? ἀλλοτρίαν which means, "belongeth to another"
Lust isn't a sin and even The Orthodox Church agrees, so disagree with me and disagree with The Church.
1. What is the source for what you cited in Greek?
2. ἀλλοτρίαν can also mean strange.
foreign, strange: γῆ, Acts 7:6; Hebrews 11:9; not of one's own family, alien, Matthew 17:25f; an enemy, Hebrews 11:34 (Homer, Iliad 5, 214; Xenophon, an. 3, 5, 5). - http://biblesuite.com/greek/245.htm
So according to this "strange" definition I could lust after any woman I want, except a "strange" one, which therefore you still still fail.
But obviously as proven the word is wife, and it says pros to covet(take), in reference to Exodus 20
Even without ἀλλοτρίαν it still means wife and pros to(in order to) so it's action.
but added with ἀλλοτρίαν it therefore FURTHER proves that lusting isn't a sin, so if it's your definition of strange, we just can't desire to take a strange woman(foreign) but can desire to take other women, which would include MARRIED women(who can possibily not be strange(foreign), BUT obviously desiring to steal a married woman from her husband, so the strange argument fails.
So the the Proper definition is Belongth to another(aka a wife, which is the True translation) then it means you cannot commit or plan adultery.
So you failed, Try Again.