Author Topic: Matt. 1:19  (Read 501 times)

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Offline Asteriktos

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Matt. 1:19
« on: May 13, 2014, 04:32:31 PM »
I have a question about the role of intended action of St. Joseph in Matt. 1:18-25, and specifically what is mentioned in verse 19:

Quote
"Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily." (KJV)

"Because Joseph her husband was faithful to the law, and yet did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly." (NIV)

"and her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly." (RSV)

Before God intervened through the angel, what exactly did Joseph hope to accomplish with his plan? So far as I can tell the part translated 'divorce' or 'put her away' above can mean a range of things, such as divorce, release, sending away, etc. Whatever it might be, how would this be carried out so as to protect Mary from 'public disgrace' or 'shame'? After all, if she was 'dismissed' (or whatever term), and suddenly it was discovered that she was pregnant, that would have raised a lot of questions and invited some potential accusations. So if St. Joseph had indeed followed through with his plan, how exactly was he thinking that it would have worked out? Was the idea that he would 'dismiss her' in the sense that he wouldn't marry her, but would still keep her in his household and provide for her? Or...?
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Offline LizaSymonenko

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Re: Matt. 1:19
« Reply #1 on: May 13, 2014, 04:35:30 PM »

I think that instead of making a public scene of her "state", which he could....he would merely send her away....perhaps to a distant land....so, the locals wouldn't know she was pregnant and her name would not be besmirched and she wouldn't be stoned.
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Offline ialmisry

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Re: Matt. 1:19
« Reply #2 on: May 13, 2014, 04:37:21 PM »
once betrothed, a pregnancy was OK.  Hence why it would require a divorce-they weren't just going steady.
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Offline Sinful Hypocrite

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Re: Matt. 1:19
« Reply #3 on: May 13, 2014, 07:09:32 PM »
once betrothed, a pregnancy was OK.  Hence why it would require a divorce-they weren't just going steady.

Because he knew it was not his baby. And I suppose he feared that he would be responsible later and felt it was not something he felt comfortable with.
« Last Edit: May 13, 2014, 07:11:12 PM by Sinful Hypocrite »
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