Tim. 3:2 says A bishop must then be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good character..."
Why do we have celibate bishops if the Bible only says that Bishops should be monogamous?
Does that passage mean that a bishop MUST be married, or that if a bishop is or ever was married, he must be married to only one wife (both at one time and throughout his entire life, thus forbidding remarriage after divorce or the wife's death)? You also realize that episcopal celibacy is a matter of Church discipline and not of dogma? Why do you think the Church adopted that disciplinary measure?