Revelation 19:10 has been discussed here several times as it relates to veneration of the Saints, but I still can't quite get around what seems
to be a clear proscription of, at the very least, bowing
to someone other than God (since proskuneo
is something of an equivocal term in Orthodox usage which can signify either latria
And I fell at his feet to worship him. But he said to me, “See that you do not do that! I am your fellow servant, and of your brethren who have the testimony of Jesus. Worship God! For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
It seems like this should be compared with other uses of the word servant in the same book. In 6:11 we see that all martyrs are fellow servants. Maybe not absolutely clear given the Orthodox exegesis of Revelation 19:10.
Then a white robe was given to each of them; and it was said to them that they should rest a little while longer, until both the number of their fellow servants and their brethren, who would be killed as they were, was completed.
But what about 1:1
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants—things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John,
It sure looks to me like John (and, by extension, the angel in Chapter 19 and the martyrs in Chapter 6) is here called a servant in the same way that he calls the audience of Revelation servants. So if angels, Apostles, and martyrs are all servants and servants bowing to each other is wrong and if we ordinary believers are also servants-therefore us bowing to angels, Apostles, and martyrs also must be wrong.
I don't want to equivocate here. I know you can't rip two of the same word out of context and interpret it the same way. But within the confines of Revelation, I'm just not sure these three usages of the word "servant" are different at all. Indeed, as far as I can tell, the translators of the NET seem to agree with my argument at any rate.
Is there any further insight from the Greek or something?