I think you're still reading it from a 'Jewish' POV though.
Here's the verse in question:
"Οὐ γὰρ θέλω ὑμᾶς ἀγνοεῖν, ἀδελφοί, τὸ μυστήριον τοῦτο, ἵνα μὴ ἦτε παρ' ἑαυτοῖς φρόνιμοι, ὅτι πώρωσις ἀπὸ μέρους τῷ Ἰσραὴλ γέγονεν ἄχρις οὗ τὸ πλήρωμα τῶν ἐθνῶν εἰσέλθῃ,"
"For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery, lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in"
- Romans 11:25
Ἰσραὴλ - not Εβραίοι, not Ιουδαίους.
Why do you assume that 'Israel' = 'Jews'? The first time 'Jews' are mentioned in the Bible, they are at war with Israel.
Israel is composed of those who accept & obey Jesus as Christ. A physical descendant of Jacob is not an Israelite unless he accepts Christ (same as the rest of us). The Old Testament faithful of Israel all looked to and accepted Christ in Hades. Israel is the Church.
Also the word which has been translated here into English as 'Gentiles' means simply 'Nations'.
So blindness has happened in part to Israel until the fullness of the Nations has come in.
Well - when is that? What is the "fullness of the Nations"? Fullness of the Nations has come in where? Into Israel; into the Church? Or into the land; into Jerusalem after the destruction of the Temple and the expulsion of the Judeans? How are we supposed to know when the fullness of the Nations has come in?
Perhaps it's already happened?