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Author Topic: Is this verse the same in the Orthodox Bible?  (Read 582 times) Average Rating: 0
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cnel
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« on: December 27, 2011, 03:48:25 AM »

Here Paul says that what he states is from him, nit from the lord.  But how can Paul then declare anyone Holy???  Is this another error? Who or what then decides that the wife of husband be sanctified??



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CO1  7: 12  But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.
CO1  7: 13  And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
CO1  7: 14  For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.

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Justin Kissel
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« Reply #1 on: December 27, 2011, 06:18:25 AM »

Everything we read can be molded by biased opinion: both our own biases and those of the writer (and maybe editor). Hold to that which seems most likely. The extent to which someone is sanctified by their spouse is something that isn't our call to make (or even, most times, without our abilities to discern with any significant degree of accuracy). That someone couldn't or couldn't be sanctified by a spouse, however, is an idea that's possible.
« Last Edit: December 27, 2011, 06:23:49 AM by Asteriktos » Logged

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cnel
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« Reply #2 on: December 27, 2011, 06:33:01 AM »

Everything we read can be molded by biased opinion: both our own biases and those of the writer (and maybe editor). Hold to that which seems most likely. The extent to which someone is sanctified by their spouse is something that isn't our call to make (or even, most times, without our abilities to discern with any significant degree of accuracy).


To hold to that which seems most likely or to that which would definitely keep us from erring, is indeed the right choice. Yet this is a very good verse to examin and investigete. I find it hard to believe he ever said this, save if he said it was from The Lord. This because he has no authority to decide that the spouse would become holy.  But then there is a compelling logic to the matter: in marriage we are one flesh and, as holy is superior to unclean, yes, I can understand that the spouse would be made holy through marriage  - for they are then one flesh. 

What worries me is that if the spouse is dishonest, crooked, wicked: would God just sanctify them?  So I have chosen to examine earlier translations and the hebrew translation.



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« Reply #3 on: December 27, 2011, 07:46:57 AM »

Everything we read can be molded by biased opinion: both our own biases and those of the writer (and maybe editor). Hold to that which seems most likely. The extent to which someone is sanctified by their spouse is something that isn't our call to make (or even, most times, without our abilities to discern with any significant degree of accuracy).


To hold to that which seems most likely or to that which would definitely keep us from erring, is indeed the right choice. Yet this is a very good verse to examin and investigete. I find it hard to believe he ever said this, save if he said it was from The Lord. This because he has no authority to decide that the spouse would become holy.  But then there is a compelling logic to the matter: in marriage we are one flesh and, as holy is superior to unclean, yes, I can understand that the spouse would be made holy through marriage  - for they are then one flesh. 

What worries me is that if the spouse is dishonest, crooked, wicked: would God just sanctify them?  So I have chosen to examine earlier translations and the hebrew translation.

Why would you look for a Hebrew translation of an Epistle?
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cnel
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« Reply #4 on: December 27, 2011, 07:50:10 AM »

Everything we read can be molded by biased opinion: both our own biases and those of the writer (and maybe editor). Hold to that which seems most likely. The extent to which someone is sanctified by their spouse is something that isn't our call to make (or even, most times, without our abilities to discern with any significant degree of accuracy).


To hold to that which seems most likely or to that which would definitely keep us from erring, is indeed the right choice. Yet this is a very good verse to examin and investigete. I find it hard to believe he ever said this, save if he said it was from The Lord. This because he has no authority to decide that the spouse would become holy.  But then there is a compelling logic to the matter: in marriage we are one flesh and, as holy is superior to unclean, yes, I can understand that the spouse would be made holy through marriage  - for they are then one flesh. 

What worries me is that if the spouse is dishonest, crooked, wicked: would God just sanctify them?  So I have chosen to examine earlier translations and the hebrew translation.

Why would you look for a Hebrew translation of an Epistle?



Because Hebrew and Greek are some of the earliest translations  - be it Armaic or Hebrew.
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LBK
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« Reply #5 on: December 27, 2011, 08:09:32 AM »

Quote
Because Hebrew and Greek are some of the earliest translations  - be it Armaic or Hebrew.

The entire New Testament, including the Epistles, were originally written in Greek. Therefore, any Aramaic or Hebrew versions would be translations of the original Greek.
« Last Edit: December 27, 2011, 08:10:19 AM by LBK » Logged
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« Reply #6 on: January 01, 2012, 09:45:40 PM »

the spouse is not made holy.. the children are and that is that they are then able to be brought into the church via the believer. I too had raised this question about the spouse and received vague answers the best being simply that by being the spouse of a member of the church the church will pray for their salvation. The question i posed was more of the two becoming one flesh. If one is with Christ and the other is not how does that play on judgement day. I would imagine it would hold some sway. My understanding of Heaven and hell is not a gate that you are either in or out but it is the matter of how you perceive the powerful love of God. so the spouse who may not be a believer may feel less anguish over the love of God. but its all purely speculation. but to ultimately answer the question the verse is the same yes
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« Reply #7 on: January 01, 2012, 11:03:16 PM »

The believer is made holy by virtue of being in Christ. The unbelieving spouse is sanctified by virtue of being united to the believing spouse, not in a manner that makes them a member of the Church but in the manner in which when something holy comes into contact with something that is not, the holy thing has a sanctifying effect on that which is not. The "I, not the Lord" part is in reference to there being no requirement for the believer to stay with the unbeliever, but no requirement against it, so Paul instructs Christians to do what works towards the salvation of the unbeliever because they may yet become a believer because of the believing spouse.

The answer is in the next three verses.

But if the unbelieving depart let him depart A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace. For what knowest thou O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband ? or how knowest thou O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife? But as God hath distributed to every man, as the Lord hath called every one, so let him walk And so ordain I in all churches.
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And FWIW, these are our Fathers too, you know.

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