Author Topic: Question about Hebrew  (Read 1598 times)

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Offline Schultz

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Question about Hebrew
« on: December 10, 2009, 02:34:21 PM »
Everyone knows that the Jews do not say the Name of God but, instead, substitute "Adonai" in its place.  We often see this written as LORD in our English language Bibles.  The Name of God is, as we know, a statement, and a very basic one, at that.

What did the ancient Hebrews (and Jews today, for that matter who speak Hebrew) use in place of of "I am..." when speaking about themselves, or does this phrase structure structure simply not exist in Hebrew?
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Offline theoforos

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #1 on: January 19, 2010, 03:44:14 AM »
Everyone knows that the Jews do not say the Name of God but, instead, substitute "Adonai" in its place.  We often see this written as LORD in our English language Bibles.  The Name of God is, as we know, a statement, and a very basic one, at that.

What did the ancient Hebrews (and Jews today, for that matter who speak Hebrew) use in place of of "I am..." when speaking about themselves, or does this phrase structure structure simply not exist in Hebrew?

The ancient way of pronouncing 'I am' in Hebrew was 'yahveh'. This pronunciation disappeared, and according to some, the reason was the reluctance to pronounce the name of God. So, the pronunciation changed from 'yahveh' to 'yihyeh'. 

Offline believer74

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #2 on: January 26, 2010, 10:16:16 AM »
What is Orthodox (Christian) teaching or custom on pronouncing God's proper name?  I always liked the Jewish custom of not saying God's proper name. 

Offline ialmisry

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #3 on: January 26, 2010, 10:42:00 AM »
Everyone knows that the Jews do not say the Name of God but, instead, substitute "Adonai" in its place.  We often see this written as LORD in our English language Bibles.  The Name of God is, as we know, a statement, and a very basic one, at that.

What did the ancient Hebrews (and Jews today, for that matter who speak Hebrew) use in place of of "I am..." when speaking about themselves, or does this phrase structure structure simply not exist in Hebrew?
It doesn't exist in Hebrew: you just say "I -" e.g. I am Hebrew would be "ani/anokhi (there are two words for "I") 'ivri"
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Offline ialmisry

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #4 on: January 26, 2010, 10:43:17 AM »
What is Orthodox (Christian) teaching or custom on pronouncing God's proper name?  I always liked the Jewish custom of not saying God's proper name. 
God's proper name is Jesus, because only in the incarnation does He properly have a name:the whole idea behind saying "I AM."
Question a friend, perhaps he did not do it; but if he did anything so that he may do it no more.
A hasty quarrel kindles fire,
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If you blow on a spark, it will glow;
if you spit on it, it will be put out;
                           and both come out of your mouth

Offline genesisone

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #5 on: January 26, 2010, 11:39:53 AM »
What is Orthodox (Christian) teaching or custom on pronouncing God's proper name?  I always liked the Jewish custom of not saying God's proper name. 
This link http://ancientfaith.com/podcasts/hopko/how_we_speak_of_god_part_1 is the first in a series of podcasts that Fr Thomas Hopko gives about God's name. I found the series fascinating and helpful.

Offline believer74

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #6 on: January 28, 2010, 12:08:03 AM »
Thanks!

Offline jnorm888

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #7 on: January 28, 2010, 12:13:06 AM »
Everyone knows that the Jews do not say the Name of God but, instead, substitute "Adonai" in its place.  We often see this written as LORD in our English language Bibles.  The Name of God is, as we know, a statement, and a very basic one, at that.

What did the ancient Hebrews (and Jews today, for that matter who speak Hebrew) use in place of of "I am..." when speaking about themselves, or does this phrase structure structure simply not exist in Hebrew?

I heard or read somewhere that the LXX uses the word "Lord" as well, and Jews made that translation.

I read or heard that the reason why the New Testament uses the word "Lord" was because it was following the tradition found in the LXX family of texts.





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Offline Rafa999

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Re: Question about Hebrew
« Reply #8 on: January 28, 2010, 12:52:12 AM »
No, the LXX used God's name in GREEK letters, the "Lord" (Kurios) thing crept in later. This is big for one of my friends, he couldn't as a Jew believe in parts of the NT for a long time because of the Kurios thing. Aramaic has "MarYah" which is the abreviated form of the sacrd name of God (the exact pronunciation has been lost, I personally believe YAHVEH is the proper pronounciation because of the "Yah" part in MarYah and because the samaritans wrote the Holy name with this pronunciation).

Jesus= Eshua (Aramaic) = Yeshua (Hebrew)

"Yeshua" means "YHWH Saves". His name contains his divine function and mission.
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