the claim that there is an Aramaic word behind
"all" instead of many is just due to Protestant prejudice by J.Jeremias.
This is a lack of scholarship. Jeremias is a fine scholar. But leaving him
aside,we should know that there is a Hebrew word, "rabbim," which means the
all who are many. If I would be in a room with three persons, I could say
all, but could not say many. We first meet this usage not in J. Jeremias
but in the prophecy of Isaiah 53. In verse 6: "The Lord laid upon Him the
iniquity of us all." But then,referring to the same ones,in verses 11 and
12 we find "rabbim:" "My righteous servant will justify "rabbim"...he bore
the sins of "rabbim." Further if one uses a Greek concordance to the New
Testament, he finds that absolutely every time St.Paul uses Greek "polloi"
as a substantive, he means all, even though "polloi" normally in Greek
means many. For example in Romans 5:19: "Just as by the disobedience of the
one,the "polloi" were made sinners, so by the obedience of the one man, the
"polloi" will be constituted just." St. Paul clearly means original sin -
he does not mean only some contract original sin. He means all. The author
says we changed to all to mean all are actually saved. Nonsense. It merely
means Christ died for all. Aramaic "saggi'in" at least at times has the
same sense as Hebrew "rabbim." The Aramaic Targum on Isaiah 53:11 does use
"saggi'in." Cf. E. C. Maloney, "Semitic Interference in Marcan Syntax," pp.
141-42 (Society of Biblical Literature Dissertation 51, 1981).