I had a discussion last night with a Reformed tradition Christian - I believe he was Presbyterian. The main point of the conversation was how the anti-christ could deceive "good" Christians as described in the NKJV translation of Matthew 24:24: "For false christs and false prophets will rise and show great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect. " To which this reformed Christian disagreed stating that if the Christian was deceived he is not part of the elect - because it is not possible to deceive the elect. Looking at the NIV translation of this verse, I can see how one could arrive at this conclusion - "For false Christs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and miracles to deceive even the elect—if that were possible".
So we have on one hand a translation that leaves room for the elect to be deceived and another that leaves no room for such a deception. I am no Greek expert - but my amateur translation of "εγερθησονται γαρ ψευδοχριστοι και ψευδοπροφηται και δωσουσιν σημεια μεγαλα και τερατα ωστε πλανασθαι ει δυνατον και τους εκλεκτους" aligns more with the first rather than the latter. Any Greek experts out there that can help understand what I am missing with the NIV translation? Or is this a plain and simple case of incorporating theology into the translation?
In the risen Christ,