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Author Topic: Did Moses disobey God on this?  (Read 1294 times) Average Rating: 0
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Myrrh23
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« on: December 18, 2008, 06:59:50 PM »

In the Beginning, God intended marriage to last forever, except in the case of unfaithfulness. Moses, however, lessened the requirements for divorce, only as a concession, because "Israel’s hearts were hard." Did Moses disobey God in allowing this for the People of Israel?
« Last Edit: December 18, 2008, 07:04:37 PM by Myrrh23 » Logged

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« Reply #1 on: December 18, 2008, 07:50:22 PM »

In the Beginning, God intended marriage to last forever, except in the case of unfaithfulness. Moses, however, lessened the requirements for divorce, only as a concession, because "Israel’s hearts were hard." Did Moses disobey God in allowing this for the People of Israel?

Maybe. Just like the Roman Catholic Church of present times allows easy to get marriage annulments, and I understand that the E. Orthodox Church allows up to two divorces?
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Justin Kissel
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« Reply #2 on: December 18, 2008, 07:59:47 PM »

Quote
The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it. - Matt. 19:3-12

I wouldn't use the word "disobey," it just wasn't the best case scenario. I don't think that Jesus condemns what Moses did, or that God would. Whether the words "All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given" is applicable to divorce in general (include the Mosaic economia), or just the justifiable reasons Jesus gave for getting a divorce, I don't know. As for my own personal interpretation, I sort of think it applies to both, and Jesus was partly approving the economia applied by Moses.
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« Reply #3 on: December 18, 2008, 08:23:07 PM »

In the Beginning, God intended marriage to last forever, except in the case of unfaithfulness. Moses, however, lessened the requirements for divorce, only as a concession, because "Israel’s hearts were hard." Did Moses disobey God in allowing this for the People of Israel?


Actually, in the Beginning, God intended marriage to last forever, period.  Unfaithfulness wasn't in the plan, like the rest of sin.

No, Moses didn't disobey God in this, anymore than his establishment of the ritual sacrifices that do not do away with sin.  The law was an expedient to a greater, future good that would fulfill it.  Remember, Moses was dealing with a society of templre prostitutes and other abominations.  The idea of marriage had to be established first, before its permanence could come with Christ.
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