I've been reading Genesis (probably for the 10 millionth time) and was reading the Orthodox commentary on it.
I also had read about the Jewish interpretations of how long ago it was and what they base their dates on. As a former Protestant, I also remember believing in the dates both literally and not literally.
However a statement caught my eye:
"This passage focuses on the genealogy of Christ and the reality of death and decay in the grave"
This passage therefore, may not have been put in the scriptures for the purpose of historical accuracy or dating, but to show Christ's genealogy (which would be pointed out in the New Testament). Thus would it not have been necessary to put ALL the fathers and sons in there? But rather put some so that his genealogy could be accurately traced/displayed?
Example... I was able to trace one branch of my ancestry back to the 1300s... However why would I have to list all the many ancestors leading to then, rather, could you just list some and still have an accurate list of your genealogy?
If this is so, then why is it necessary for us to try and directly trace the age of things through the numbers in Genesis? If humans indeed did exist over 200,000 years ago. Then why would the writer of Genesis list ALL the human ancestors from 200,000 years (assuming that may be when Adam was created) to the days of Noah?
However my goal here is NOT to detirmine the age of humans or the age of earth, as IMO that is not something that is important for us to know. But I'm just trying to see if my interpretation is correct.