The Father is distinguished in that he is the peron in the Trinity that has no source, who begets the Son and spirates the Spirit. The Son is the person in the Trinity who is begotten by the Father and, along with the Father as a single princple, spirates the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the person who does not beget nor spirate, but proceeds from both the Father and the son.
From what i've read and as stated in the nicene creed, it states, And I believe in the Holy Spirit that proceeds from the Father. It does not mention the Son. While you state, that the Holy Spirit Spirates from both the Father and Son.
If this is so, how do you account for the Holy Spirit descending like a dove upon Jesus When he was Baptised by John? would not the Holy Spirit already be present with Jesus if he spirates From him as well?
Anyone more learned than I please correct My views from the orthodox perspective if i am wrong please
The Holy Spirit was descending on Christ as man to anoint him as messiah.
Do you realize how Nestorian that sounds. The human and divine nature of Christ were "without separation."
The correct Biblical teaching is that the Holy Spirit proceeds, that is originates from the Father and is sent by the Son. St. John 15:26. Some of the Fathers express this as "through the Son." The original Greek text of the creed uses the word, "ἐκπορευόμενον" which means to proceed from one source. Even Rome recognizes this and never adds the words "and the Son" when the Creed is recited in Greek. St. John 15:26 also uses the word "ἐκπορευόμενον". However, the Latin word translated proceeds "procedit" which can mean to proceed through a mediator. Thus it can be used to mean that the Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son, which is what the Latins argued at Florence.
However, the text as approved by the Ecumenical Councils was the Greek text. Therefore any translation into Latin should be an accurate translation of the original Greek text with its original meaning. Even the Popes refused to add the filioque to the Creed until 1014 and then under pressure from the Emperors of the Holy Roman Empire, who used the "filioque" to accuse the Eastern Empire of heresy to strengthen their claim to be the legitimate heirs of the Roman Empire instead of the Emperor in Constantinople. No one, not even the Bishop of Rome has the authority to change a decision of an Ecumenical Council.
Fr. John W. Morris