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Author Topic: Let a good man strike or rebuke me in kindness  (Read 239 times) Average Rating: 0
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isaelie
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« on: June 11, 2012, 04:13:59 AM »

Let a good man strike or rebuke me in kindness, but let the oil of the wicked never anoint my head; for my prayer is continually against their wicked deeds. Psalm 141 :5 (RSV)

Let the righteous strike me; It shall be a kindness. And let him rebuke me; It shall be as excellent oil; Let my head not refuse it. For still my prayer is against the deeds of the wicked. (NKJV)
 
Don't they differ? Which is the more correct translation?

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« Reply #1 on: June 11, 2012, 04:27:48 AM »

FWIW, my Ethiopic( Ge'ez) text reads like the first(RSV), I will let others tell you as to what the LXX says. and there is a marked difference in meaning between the two translations you sited IMHO.
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Orthodox11
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« Reply #2 on: June 11, 2012, 05:17:27 AM »

Which is the more correct translation?

Of the two the RSV is the more correct when compred to the LXX. I'm not sure which is closer to the Hebrew MT they're trying to translate from though.
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isaelie
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« Reply #3 on: June 11, 2012, 05:27:40 AM »

The meaning is different, wouldn't you say?
One says that the act itself of "smite" or "rebuke" or "strike" is to be in a gentle or 'kind' fashion.
The other says that the result or consequence of this "rebuke" or "smite" is a kindness or a good thing for the person who was smacked of course.
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My God is the Lord

This I will never understand: How a Christian can justify the crusades or any man going to war, even if he is trying to defend himself or others. Love your enemies - Thou shall not kill - Deliver me from the guilt of bloodguiltiness, O God, thou God of my salvation
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« Reply #4 on: June 11, 2012, 05:37:06 AM »

The meaning is different, wouldn't you say?

Not really. "In kindness" means it is done out of kindness, it doesn't mean the rebuke is a gentle one. Likewise, "it shall be a kindness" means that the act is one done with kind intentions.
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« Reply #5 on: June 11, 2012, 06:16:50 AM »

I would say the RSV is the more correct version as it more closely follows the LXX (or at least the Breton version I have.) The NKJV follows the KJV and the MT used there. The bolded text from both verses seem to say pretty much the same thing, but obviously the rest of the verse seems to differ; again, the RSV seems to follow the LXX more closely whilst the NKJV follows the MT.
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« Reply #6 on: June 11, 2012, 02:06:51 PM »

I can't vouch for the accuracy of either translation, but imho, the meanings of each in English seem close enough as to make no appreciable difference.
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« Reply #7 on: June 11, 2012, 02:09:58 PM »

This is why I infinitely prefer the RSV.   Cool
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