Sorry if this was discussed somewhere else. Couldn't find one in the search.
I know that we say "most holy, pure, an ever-virgin Mary" in Liturgy, but I came across this some time back and meant to ask about it: "And he knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son" (Mt. 1:25).
The way in which it is worded, it seems like Mary had intercourse with Joseph after the birth of Jesus. The whole thing seems a little contradictory to me, so what is the Church's perspective on this verse?