I read your posts, and I'll try and write a response soon.
It is an impossible question to answer since I don't view the Papacy in a manner that you do.
Fair enough. Maybe that's more of a question to ask my fellow Catholics.
Let me ask you this instead (you too, Father Ambrose). Suppose that a Catholic approaches you about converting to Orthodoxy. Suppose further that he/she still believes that the pope speaks infallibly whenever he makes an ex cathedra statement ("that is, when, in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church
" cf. Vatican I), but
he/she does not believe that there have ever been any ex cathedra statements (outside of 1 Peter and 2 Peter). Would you say that such a person could become Orthodox anyways?
Or better yet, suppose someone wanting to convert to Orthodoxy believes that the statement Vatican I made about infallibility is true of every
bishop, not just the pope. That is, that any bishop speaks infallibly if/when in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church
. Would that be an obstacle to conversion to Orthodoxy (keeping in mind Act 15:28)?