I noticed in another forum here (Faith Issues
) the idea being presented that Mary, the mother of our Lord, was sinless. That is that she did not personally commit sin during her life.
One poster stated it...
Orthodox believe that Mary was still born with the same corruption inherited from our fathers' sinfulness, though she did not sin during her life. Regardless, since she still possessed this corruption, she was in need of Christ's Cross as much as the rest of us.
Now, I'll admit I have some difficulty understanding the nuances and difference between the Eastern idea of being born in sin from that of the Western idea of original sin. On the one hand they seem world's apart. On the other they seem insignificantly different, almost semantical. But, that is not the point of this post.
I disagree with the idea that Mary was sinless. Not only was she born in sin, and in need of the Saving grace and work of Christ, but she personally sinned according to Romans 3:23 (...for ALL have sinned...). The one and only exception to this rule, according to the Scripture, is Jesus Himself.
I have no problem seeing Mary as a great example of faith and devotion to God. And it is a fact that God chose her, while she was yet a virgin, to conceive and bare His only begotten Son -- the incarnate Word. I mean not to belittle her example or station in the plan of God.
However, I am curious how you guys would rationalize this concept of her being free from any personal or individual committal of sin compared with Romans 3:23.
Thanks for your patience and replies with an obvious outsider.