Whether it was during or before the Passover, the Jews have a tradition to remove all leavened in their house seven (7) days, before the passover, to ensure that no leaven is found. This is a part of their preparation to the passover. so Its definitely unleavened bread.
No. They remove it the evening before Passover, Erev Pesach.
Traditionally, Jews do a formal search for remaining chametz ("bedikat chametz") after nightfall on the evening before Passover (which is also the evening that precedes the Fast of the Firstborn). A blessing is read (על ביעור חמץ - al biyur chametz, "on the removal of chametz") and one or more members of the household proceed from room to room to ensure no crumbs remain in any corner. In very traditional families, the search may be conducted by the head of the household; in more modern families, the children may be the ones who do the search, under the careful supervision of their parents.
It is customary to turn off the lights and conduct the search by candlelight, using a feather and a wooden spoon: candlelight effectively illuminates corners without casting shadows; the feather can dust crumbs out of their hiding places; and the wooden spoon which collects the crumbs can be burned the next day with the chametz.
Because the house is assumed to have been thoroughly cleaned by the night before Passover, there is some concern that making a blessing over the search for chametz will be for nought ("bracha l'vatala") if nothing is found. Thus, ten pieces of bread smaller than the size of an olive are hidden throughout the house in order to ensure that there is chametz to be found.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Passover#Spring_Mega-Cleaning It is not without importance that those who celebrated Pascha on the same date in Asia did so on the 14th Nisan, i.e. Erev Pesach. Hence Quartodecimanians.
The use of unleavened bread by the latins, is also considered as a legitimate liturgical difference even by some Eastern Orthodox bishop and should not be an issue anymore.
Because the Vatican says so?
The use of Leavened and Unleavened bread by the Oriental Orthodox is never a cause of division as it was never been a cause of division by the early church until this was explicitly done by the EO as the only legitimate form of bread.
No, it became an issue when the Vatican tried to force it on the Orthodox in Southern Italy.
whether it was leavened or unleavened, it should not be a cause of division
I'd agree, but because who says so?
While reading the list of Orthodox Church Synods and Councils I read that the Synod of Jerusalem declared that Jesus didn't use unleavened bread at the last supper...what is the reason for this? Wasn't the Last Supper during passover?
I'm astonished that people still ask this question.
Look at the time factor for the events which took place, and you will see that the Last Supper was not the Passover Meal:
1) Jesus and the disciples eat the Last Supper,
2) Jesus and the disciples crossed the Kidron Valley (John 18:1)
3) Jesus underwent the Agony in the Garden
4) Jesus was Arrested
5) Jesus was brought before Ciaphas
6) Jesus was taken from Ciaphas and brought before Pilate.
But St. John tells us that when Jesus was brought to Pilate the next morning (event No.6), the Jews who brought Him to Pilate would not enter the Praetorium, because doing so would render them unclean for the Passover:
"Then they led Jesus from Caiaphas to the Praetorium, and it was early morning. But they themselves did not go into the Praetorium, lest they should be defiled, so that they might eat the Passover." (John18:28)
St. John the Beloved Disciple (who witnessed the events himself first hand) clearly says that the events listed 1-6 took place before the Passover, so leavened bread was still used.
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