I would like to have also your comments about the passage. I don't feel very well reading it 'to deliver a person unto satan"-it doesn't seem so christian to me...Could you imagine Jesus saying something like that?
I am not Orthodox, but rather Catholic, but I will tell you that I have always understood it in terms of excommunication. In effect, cut the offender off from grace and that will be, in effect, to deliver them to Satan. But, as it is done for a time in order to correct them it is only in the flesh, so that they can repent, and then when they are restored they will be able to be saved on the last day. This is how I have always understood it. For what you may see it as worth, here is what the Haydock Bible has in its commentary:
In the name....with the power of our Lord Jesus, to deliver such a one to Satan by a sentence of excommunication, depriving him of the sacraments, the prayers, and communion, and even of the conversation of the rest of the faithful. It is likely in those times, such excommunicated persons were delivered over to Satan, so as to be corporally tormented by the devil, to strike a terror into others. See St. Chrysostom, hom. xv. and this is said to be done for the destruction, or punishment of the flesh, that the spirit, or soul, may be saved. (Witham) --- It is the opinion of most of the Greek fathers, that this man was either really possessed by the devil, or at least struck with such a complaint as a mortification, and humiliation to his body, whilst it served to purify his soul. We have seen from many instances in holy Scripture, that it was not unusual, in the origin of Christianity, for persons who had fallen into crimes of this nature, to be punished with death, some grievous sickness, or by being possessed by the devil, so as to be separated from the communion of the Church. (St. Ambrose; Estius; Just. [St. Justin Martyr?]; Menochius)
Hope this may help.