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 51 
 on: Yesterday at 11:49:46 PM 
Started by TSchristian - Last post by Porter ODoran
...

Does the Holy Spirit remain with Schismatic Bishops? This is the prickly question in regards to the OO (and the Latin Church for that matter). Traditionally (from what I understand), the answer is no. If so, than Pope Dioscoros and his successors are devoid of Grace, and not the Church. Therefore their rejection of later councils is irrelevant, because they are not in the Church anyway.

...

This seems like cyclical reasoning.
No, it isn't circular.

If Dioscorus was mistaken in his break with the Church and left the community in a spiritual sense, then his rejection of its council or its later ones does not mean that they were not ecumenical.

For example, if five members of a club are upset over financial mismanagement and leave, but it turns out that their criticisms were totally baseless, then it doesn't matter organizationally if they reject the treasurer's report: the club can continue and "unanimously" adopt the treasurer's report without them.

When the Fourth Council is taken into consideration (and how can it not be), then the reasoning is circular.

 52 
 on: Yesterday at 11:48:44 PM 
Started by Maria - Last post by Maria
This is an interesting thought I had. Are moral principles bound to our scientific understanding and cultural awareness?

For instance, if someone before the knowledge of the female egg, spilled his seed believing he was effectively killing a human life, wouldn't that be sinful regardless of the fact that he is not in fact killing anyone? Christ seemed to teach that it is not the act in itself but the state of the heart that condemns you.

This seems to me to fit well into some OT commandmenrs , for instance against eating certain foods.

Interesting. Yes, the ancient world thought that sperm were completely formed persons who just needed to grow mentally and physically to full stature.

 53 
 on: Yesterday at 11:47:52 PM 
Started by TSchristian - Last post by Alveus Lacuna
STOP IGNORING ME!!!!

 54 
 on: Yesterday at 11:46:07 PM 
Started by CopticDeacon - Last post by kijabeboy03
SO, Can we venerate icons of EO saints in the understanding that our Theology and Christology is indeed the same, but semantically different? I was thinking about adding an icon of St. Gregory Palamas or St. Joseph the Elder to my prayer corner, but I'm not sure if EO saints are taboo. I checked and confirmed that hesychasm is universally orthodox, so then I find no fault with those fathers. Certainly they intercede and pray for all but then there's the slight issue of the lack of communion in our churches. Do you EO have OO saints in your corners/hearts? And do any of us OO have EO saints in our corners/hearts? Most likely, but I'd like some clarification and detail. Thank you for your time.

NOTE: I don't mean an OO with an EO icon of the Theotokos. I have 2 EO icons of the Theotokos, I don't question that. I mean specifically orthodox saints after Chalcedon, that are not in communion with your church.

Coming from the other side of things, I have icons of St. Tekle Haimanot, the Nine Roman Saints, St. Simon al-Kharraz, Pope St. Cyril VI, and St. Gebre Menfes Qidus. I had them blessed by the priest at my old Sunday parish (an American Orthodox/OCA church), but I know the priest at my feast day parish (a Russian Orthodox/ROCOR mission) would probably have refused to bless them :-/. So it really depends on the person, no? If it were up to me I would commune wherever I'm at (Eastern or Oriental Orthodox), but some clergy allow this and others don't, which is why I was baptized Eastern Orthodox when I converted - I knew I would be moving to North America and that it would be easier to find Eastern Orthodox churches there than Oriental Orthodox ones. I hope someday we will definitively heal this schism and not have silly icons with St. Dioscorus being guided by a demon and arguments over whether Fathers like St. Severus were right or wrong...

 55 
 on: Yesterday at 11:43:35 PM 
Started by TSchristian - Last post by rakovsky
...

Does the Holy Spirit remain with Schismatic Bishops? This is the prickly question in regards to the OO (and the Latin Church for that matter). Traditionally (from what I understand), the answer is no. If so, than Pope Dioscoros and his successors are devoid of Grace, and not the Church. Therefore their rejection of later councils is irrelevant, because they are not in the Church anyway.

...

This seems like cyclical reasoning.
No, it isn't circular.

If Dioscorus was mistaken in his break with the Church and left the community in a spiritual sense, then his rejection of its council or its later ones does not mean that they were not ecumenical.

For example, if five members of a club are upset over financial mismanagement and leave, but it turns out that their criticisms were totally baseless, then it doesn't matter organizationally if they reject the treasurer's report: the club can continue and "unanimously" adopt the treasurer's report without them.


 56 
 on: Yesterday at 11:41:08 PM 
Started by Jetavan - Last post by Alveus Lacuna
She's kinda hot in a creepy way though...

 57 
 on: Yesterday at 11:38:14 PM 
Started by TSchristian - Last post by Nephi
Quote
They don't appear to leave open the possibility that the latter four councils are in actuality local councils, and will always be such. And to affirm Mor's comment: I was, in fact, arguing that the latter four councils (Chalcedon through Nicaea II) are not ecumenical.

Right, Nephi. The Original Question in the Opening Post was if the councils are taken as ecumenical, then how does our Eastern Orthodox Church explain their reception.

Here is the Opening Post:
Quote
My question is if this reception and hindsight is a necessity for a council to be ecumenical and infallible, how do the Eastern Orthodox explain that the subsequent councils after the first three are ecumenical and infallible without the acceptance of the Oriental Churches?
The best answer I can think for how our church explains their ecumenicity is (1) or (2), although I am not excluding our Church has other answers to explain it.

The OP does include this:

Quote
If their consent is required as well since they [OO] also are full churches in the Eucharistic Ecclesiology, I'm having a hard time seeing how the four councils in question could have been elevated to ecumenical/infallible status without using a universal ecclesiology.

But frankly I'm not interested in tit-for-tat exchanges, so I'll bow out of this "what did the OP really ask" now.

 58 
 on: Yesterday at 11:37:39 PM 
Started by TSchristian - Last post by Alveus Lacuna
I have decreed! OBEY!

 59 
 on: Yesterday at 11:37:27 PM 
Started by Godspell - Last post by TheTrisagion
Proto-German, then (hel or helja). In the sense of contrast to Greek, English is a German language.

Another comment, if again not a direct answer to the question the OP meant to ask: In traditional English translations, "hell" is used to render three Greek words. One is really a transliteration of Hebrew, however; this leaves us with two truly Greek words: hádes and tártaros. Obviously the Church is right to render these distinctly in its English-language texts ...
verba ita sunt intelligenda ut res magis valeat quam pereat

Try that again in English, please. 
English: When explaining a given subject, it is important to clarify rather than confuse.

 60 
 on: Yesterday at 11:35:40 PM 
Started by ShayneSwenson - Last post by Porter ODoran
I was told by my priest (RC) that I'd be putting my salvation at risk.

Aren't you putting your soul at risk every time you commit a mortal sin? How that a real threat?

From a RC perspective, I committed a mortal sin with no intention to ever repent.

Same from the perspective of my religion of origin -- so I know personally that this can make you feel just sick in the pit of your stomach. Lord, have mercy on your servant Sam G.

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