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Foreign Language Forums => Foreign Languages Forum => Topic started by: Luke on January 07, 2020, 08:53:32 PM

Title: John 1:1 in Sahidic Coptic
Post by: Luke on January 07, 2020, 08:53:32 PM
I read an argument by an Arian that John 1:1 in Sahidic Coptic  uses an indefinite article, "The word was a god."
I know absolutely zip Coptic, so if anyone knows Coptic,, how would you reply?
Title: Re: John 1:1 in Sahidic Coptic
Post by: MalpanaGiwargis on January 08, 2020, 09:25:42 PM
I read an argument by an Arian that John 1:1 in Sahidic Coptic  uses an indefinite article, "The word was a god."
I know absolutely zip Coptic, so if anyone knows Coptic,, how would you reply?

It's true: The word in question is the third from the end of verse 1 (https://www.stepbible.org/?q=version=CopSahHorner|reference=Joh.1). It could mean the Word was "a god" or simply that the Word was "divine"—this is often how Sahidic forms adjectives, of which the language has remarkably few. Coptic has a definite article, an indefinite article, and zero-article. When translating Greek words without a definite article, as in John 1:1, the Coptic translator has to make a choice between indefinite and zero-article, and this can introduce nuances perhaps not intended. I have often wondered how an ancient Sahidic-speaking Copt with no knowledge of the Greek text or Christian doctrine would have understood this verse.
Title: Re: John 1:1 in Sahidic Coptic
Post by: WPM on January 09, 2020, 01:37:58 PM
~ Sayings of the Desert Fathers. ~
Title: Re: John 1:1 in Sahidic Coptic
Post by: juliogb on January 13, 2020, 07:21:40 AM
I remember seeing a similar thread about Sahidic John 1:1, I remember that there was something about partitive articles and some features of coptic language that makes it difficult to translate it properly to english.